Random Stuffs: hey super intellectual spectacles friends.

Monday, June 20, 2011

how come eventho the ending to 'tea' and 'yea' are the same, they are prounonced differently.

tell me how come thank you.

Șмž said...: I would nominate myself as the person on this blog most qualified to answer this,,,

but im not suoer intellectual

(it is because, in fact, most english language spellings today are archaisms retained from the time of william shakespeare. in the time of william shakespeare the language they spoke was very close to the one we speak, but it was actually pronounced very differently. many of the sounds that are very different between american and british speakers of the english language are due to schisms in the language that were in place in shakespeare's time, which have just further diverged with time. anyway, in shakespeare's time, when the standard english orthography [spelling] was set, most words were pronounced in the ways they were spelt. as the language evolved, the way the words were pronounced changed but barely any spellings changed because they were all just known as they were. only a few things such as ye for the [which was pronounced 'duh'] and the thy-thine second person singular [really would have been useful to have] were dropped. and that is my explanation)

(also I can't believe how much I thought of Orwell's politics and while writing this); Monday, June 20, 2011 at 11:05:00 PM GMT+10
Jonny Boyz said...: from now on, im saying tea like yea.; Monday, June 20, 2011 at 11:44:00 PM GMT+10